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Now Moses, David, and Isaiah used the same terms. Who will say then th… — Pensées

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SAPIR 861

Pensées — Blaise Pascal

Now Moses, David, and Isaiah used the same terms. Who will say then that they have not the same meaning, and that David's meaning, which is plainly iniquities when he spoke of enemies, was not the same as [_that of_] Moses when speaking of enemies?

Place: SECTION X · ¶2123
License: Public domain · Source
The text is given as in the edition, unedited.

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Open Scriptures Hebrew Bible (WLC), CC BY 4.0