Now Moses, David, and Isaiah used the same terms. Who will say then that they have not the same meaning, and that David's meaning, which is plainly iniquities when he spoke of enemies, was not the same as [_that of_] Moses when speaking of enemies?
Endroit: SECTION X · ¶2123 Licence: Public domain · Source Le texte est donné tel que dans l'édition, sans retouche.